Daily Current Affairs Quiz #2

1. Which of the following commissions was/ were set up to deal with famine issue in British India?
1. Campbell commission
2. Sadler commission
3. Stratchey commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : C

In 1866 a great famine struck many parts of India but its impact was felt most in Orissa. The government- appointed George Campbell Commission to investigate the causes of famine and to recommend measures to prevent recurrences in future.
• The recommendations of Campbell Commission were not given much attention and consequently a
serious famine reoccurred in many parts of country including Punjab, UP and Madras in 1876. Its
maximum impact was felt in the Madras Presidency. The government appointed another commission
under Stratchey in 1880.
• The Stratchey Commission recommended:
o A famine code should be formulated.
o Irrigation facilities should be developed.
o Collection of land revenue should be suspended immediately during famines and land revenue should
be remitted.
o Data should be collected about the conditions of Indian peasantry and agriculture.
o A famine fund should be set up. In accordance with the recommendation of Strachey Commission a
famine fund with amount Rs 1 crore was set up and famine code was also formulated in 1883.
• Sadler Commission (1917) was set up to study and report on problems of Calcutta University but its
recommendations were applicable more or less to other universities also. It reviewed the entire field
from school education to university education. It held the view that, for the improvement of university
education, improvement of secondary education was a necessary precondition.

2. Which of the following officials are appointed by the President by a ‘warrant under his hand and seal’?
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
2. Chief Information Officer
3. Judges of the Supreme Court
4. Central Vigilance Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer : D

A warrant under his hand and seal means the appointment letter bears the signature of the
President himself/herself and this function is not delegated to any other authority.
• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Attorney
General of India and the Central Vigilance Commissioner of India are appointed by the President by a
warrant under his hand and seal, whereas the appointment of other officers can be delegated by the
President to other authorities.
• The Central Information Commissioner is appointed by the President and falls under the Ministry of
Personnel, but his/her appointment letter will bear the signature of the Minister of that particular
Ministry.

3. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for Autonomous District Councils in the state of Assam. In any such council, the power of direction, with respect to different acts of Parliament or the state legislature, lies with
(a) The President of India
(b) The Autonomous District Council
(c) The Governor
(d) The Chief Minister

Answer : C

The Constitution, under Sixth Schedule, contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomousregions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
• Under this Schedule, the President and the Governors of the said states have been assigned with certain special powers. Therefore, the power of direction, with respect to different acts of Parliament or the state legislature, lies either with the President or Governor. In the case of Assam, it lies with the Governor, both in respect of acts of Parliament or state legislature. In the case of Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, it lies with the President in respect of acts of Parliament and Governor in respect of acts of state legislature.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Great Indian desert:
1. The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the Peninsular plateau.
2. This region was under the sea during the Mesozoic area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : C

The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is a large arid region in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent that covers an area of 2 Lakh km2 and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.
• Statement 1 is correct: The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the Peninsular plateau, yet, due to extreme arid conditions, its surface features have been carved by physical weathering and wind actions. Some of the well pronounced desert land features present here are mushroom rocks, shifting dunes and oasis (mostly in its southern part). The desert can be divided into two parts: the northern part is sloping towards Sindh and the southern towards the Rann of Kachchh
• Statement 2 is correct: It is believed that during the Mesozoic era (252 to 66 million years ago), this region was under the sea. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at wood fossils park at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer (The approximate age of the wood-fossils is estimated to be 180 million years).
• The Mesozoic is one of three geologic eras preceded by the Paleozoic and succeeded by the Cenozoic. It is also called the Age of Reptiles and the Age of Conifers.

5. Consider the following statements with regard to seagrass meadows:
1. It is a habitat for many marine species like dugong, manatees, and turtles.
2. They are confined to tropical seas and oceans.
3. It helps in stabilizing sediments, recycling of nutrients and forms the base
of the oceanic detrital food webs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : B

Seagrass meadows also known as marine prairies have attained tremendous significance and their services as ecosystem is greatly valued for food, feed, shelter, refuge marine biodiversity hotspots and nursery grounds to many marine vertebrates and invertebrates of commercial and ecological importance, besides their highest primary production and their role in checking ocean acidification and global warming impacts through their excellent carbon sequestration potential.
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Seagrass meadow is a habitat for many marine species like dugong, manatees, and turtles. They are very important for the geomorphology and ecology of coastal ecosystems by processes such as stabilizing sediments, recycling nutrients and forming the base of the oceanic detrital food webs.
• It has extraordinary primary productivity somewhat equivalent to the tropical rainforest.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Seagrasses generally inhabit the protected shallow waters of the temperate ( arctic circle) and tropical coastal areas. The most extensive areas are found in the tropics. A few species occur in colder regions like the Norwegian coast, etc. They are not found in Antarctica.

6. Consider the following terms used in administration during the rule of Satavahanas:
Term Meaning
1. Ahara : Military Head
2. Gaulmika : Administrative units
3. Skandhavaras : Military camps
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : B

The Satvahana rulers strove for the royal ideal set forth in the Dharmashastras. The king was represented as the upholder of dharma. The Satavahanas retained some of the administrative units found in Ashokan times. Their district was called ahara, as it was known in the time of Ashoka. Their officials were known as amatyas and mahamatras, as they were known in Mauryan times.
• Certain military and feudal traits are noticed in the administration of the Satvahanas. It is significant that the senapati was appointed provincial governor. Since the tribal people in the Deccan were not thoroughly brahmanized and reconciled to the new rule, it was necessary to keep them under strong military control. The administration in the rural areas was placed in the hands of gaulmika, who was head of a military regiment consisting of nine chariots, nine elephants, 25 horses and 45 foot soldiers.
• The military character of the Satvahana rule is also evident from the common use of such terms as kataka and skandhavaras in their inscriptions. These were military camps and settlements which served as administrative centres so long as the king was there.

7. With reference to restrictions on fundamental rights, consider the following statements:
1. The fundamental right to form an association among the members of a state police force can only be restricted by the Parliament.
2. Declaration of martial law automatically suspends the writ of habeas corpus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : A

Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces (Both central police forces and state police forces), intelligence agencies and analogous forces. The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them.
• The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.
• Parliament has enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force Act and so on. These impose restrictions on their freedom of speech, right to form associations, right to be members of trade unions or political associations, right to communicate with the press, right to attend public meetings or demonstrations, etc.
• The expression, ‘members of the armed forces’, also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants.
• Article 34 provides for restriction on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify (protect) any government servant or any other person for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in force.
• The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. Literally, it means ‘military rule’.
• During the operation of martial law, the military authorities are vested with abnormal powers to take all necessary steps. They impose restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death.
• However, the Supreme Court has ruled that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas corpus.

8. With reference to the Indian national movement, Irwin declaration refers to a declaration made by Lord Irwin:
(a) clarifying the intention of the British government which was to facilitate the dominion status for India.
(b) putting forward the British conditions for accepting the demands of Mahatma Gandhi during Civil disobedience movement.
(c) for the appointment of Simon Commission to report on India’s constitutional progress for introducing constitutional reforms.
(d) to constitute Round Table Conferences to discuss about India‟s Constitutional reforms.

Answer : A

The Irwin Declaration was a statement made by Lord Irwin, then Viceroy of India, on 31 October 1929 regarding the status of India in the British empire. It was intended to placate leaders of the Indian nationalist movement who had become increasingly vocal in demanding dominion status for India.
• The Declaration was a five-line statement in simple non-legal language. It attempted to clarify to its British and Indian audiences that the intention of the British government was to facilitate India attaining dominion status in the future. However, there was no mention of any timeline.
• The Declaration triggered political developments both in Britain and India. In Britain, there was a backlash: significant parts of the political class and the general public were against India attaining obtaining dominion status. In India, nationalist leaders welcomed the Declaration and radically changed their mode of engagement with the British government: they now wanted all negotiations between Indian political leaders and Britain to be about the formalisation of dominion status for India and the framing of a new Constitution.

9. ‘It is famous for being the only national park in the world to have four big cat species i.e. leopard, tiger, clouded leopard, and snow leopard. It has been declared both a Tiger Reserve and National Park. It exhibits a wide range of habitats like tropical moist forests, montane forests, temperate forests, alpine meadows, and perennial snow.’
Which of the following National Parks is described in the above passage?
(a) Namdapha National Park
(b) Kaziranga National park
(c) Nameri National Park
(d) Khangchendzonga National Park

Answer : A

• Namdapha National Park is located in the Changlang district of the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
Namdapha National Park is the third largest national park in India in terms of area (and the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalayas). Namdapha National Park is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India. The national park is nestled between the Patkai range and Dapha bum range of Mishmi Hills.
• Namdapha lies along the turbulent Noa-Dihing River at the international border between India and Myanmar. Namdapha was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1972. It was declared a tiger reserve and national park in 1983. The total area of the park is about 1807.82 Km2.
• Namdapha National Park is famous for being the only park in India and the world to have four big cat species, like leopard, tiger, clouded leopard and snow leopard. Around 96 mammal species are found here of which 29 species are listed on Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Perhaps no other national park in the world has a wider altitudinal variation than the Namdapha national park that rises from 200m to 4,500m in the snow-capped mountain.
• The habitat changes with increasing altitude from Tropical moist forests to montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow.
• Kaziranga National Park is a protected area in the northeast Indian state of Assam. Spread across the floodplains of the Brahmaputra River, its forests, wetlands, and grasslands are home to tigers, elephants and the world’s largest population of Indian one-horned rhinoceroses.
• Nameri National Park is a national park in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas in Assam, Nameri shares its northern boundary with the Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary of Arunachal Pradesh. Nameri has a large population of elephants and is a birdwatcher’s paradise with over 300 species.
• Khangchendzonga National Park is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim. It was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list in July 2016, becoming the first “Mixed Heritage” site of India. The vegetation of the park include temperate broadleaf and mixed forests consisting of oaks, fir, birch, maple, willow. The vegetation of the park also includes Alpine grasses and shrubs at higher altitudes along with many medicinal plants and herbs.

10. Consider the following statements about Taiga Forests:
1. These are present only in the Northern hemisphere.
2. This biome typically has short, wet summers and long, cold winters.
3. These forests are endangered due to logging and mining by humans as they have a short growing season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer : D

The Taiga, which is also known as the boreal (meaning Northern) forest region, occupies about 17% of
Earth's land surface area. It occurs in 50 and 60 degrees north latitudes. The taiga is nowhere in the southern hemisphere, since there is no mass of mainland at the appropriate latitudes.
• The taiga biome is the largest terrestrial biome and extends across Europe, NorthAmerica, and Asia. It is located right below the tundra biome. The taiga biome is also known as a coniferous forest or boreal forest. This biome typically has short, wet summers and long, cold winters. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The taiga forests are endangered due to logging and mining by humans. When trees are cut down in the taiga, it takes a very long time to restore itself because of the very short growing season.
• The taiga lies between the tundra to the north and temperate forests to the south. Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia, and Siberia have taigas. In Russia, the world’s largest taiga stretches about 5,800 kilometers from the Pacific Ocean to the Ural Mountains.

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